Scenario:
I forward my Verizon wireless cell phone to my Vonage number. I do this by dialing *72 myVonageNumber which I assume tells some VZW switch to forward (my point is that the cell phone is not doing the forwarding). I then get a call from another Vonage customer to my cell phone, which is forwarded to my Vonage phone.
Question:
Is this considered a Vonage to Vonage call from the Vonage switch (and billing) point of view?
Thanks.
[TELECOM Digest Editor's Note: No it is not Vonage Vonage. The other person's _intention_ was to call your VZW line. The call had to get off Vonage and go to Verizon, then Verizon in turn has to forward it on. PAT]