VLAN 2 Internet Connections. Send PC's down 1 ISP, VoIP phones down 2nd ISP

Apr 01, 2006 4 Replies

Hello, Is it possible to setup a situation like this:



We have a single network drop in all our office (roughly 20). We have a Computer and a SIP baised IP phone in these offices.



IP phone is connected to the walljack, then the computer is plugged into the back of the phone (phone as a built in hub).



So it looks like this: switch---->walljack ---->IPhone--->computer Everything is plugged into one Switch.



What I'm looking to do is send the IP phone traffic down our T1 connection. Send the computer/Data traffic down our cable modem connection. Basically looking to use our T1 for VoIP traffic and our cable modem for Data only without rewiring the entire building.



Being that the computers are plugged into the phones, I'm thinking it's MAC based VLANS.



But is this possibe? Any locations of documents to help?



Thanks.



(snip)

Easier to do at layer 3 by putting them on different IP subnets (on the same cable). Routers on the T1 and cable modem will select only the appropriate IP addresses.

comp.protocols.tcp-ip added.

-- glen

Thanks for the suggestion.

So would this be the setup?

VoIP phones:

192.168.0.x mask: 255.255.255.0 Gateway 192.168.0.1

Computers: 192.168.1.x Mask: 255.255.255.0 Gateway: 192.168.1.1

Here's the question:

Will both routers be plugged into the same switch and traffic will just be sent down the correct router and gateway specified by the device?

How about using DHCP, wouldn't this pose a problem? I would have to do static mappings or reservations for everything, right? I can't have 2 DHCP servers on the same LAN, right?

Why use two routers at all? One router with 2 inetfaces (or 3 for 2 lans plus internet) Or use one router with just 1 interface that supports tagged vlans natively. Plug that one interface into the switch, and set it up as tagged...

Yes, you could have everything plugged into that one switch. So long as you make sure the vlan port mappings are set correctly on it.

No, why?

No. Why would you?

Correct. But the above example is 2 lans. You can do it with just one DHCP server with a connection to each lan, or two seperate servers, or one server and a forwarder. But they key concept is that when you break it up at layer 3 as above, it is now > 1 lan (in this case, it is now 2 lans)

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