I have a 7301 router that talks to a 7604 router via a public WAN interface. Behind the 7301 is a private network (dot1q). This private network makes its way over the WAN link to the 7604, and there its routed to an appliance that NATs it.
I want to see if its possible to NAT right at the 7301. The 7301 already routes out perfectly over its WAN interface.
Its kind of a weird config, so here are the key interfaces on the7301:
interface Loopback0 ip address 172.17.0.8 255.255.255.255 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 22.214.171.124 255.255.255.252 ! interface FastEthernet1/0 description Cisco 2955 no ip address ! interface FastEthernet1/0.2 description MGMT_VLAN2 encapsulation dot1Q 2 ip address 172.17.24.1 255.255.252.0 ! interface FastEthernet1/0.200 description Client Network Vlan 200 encapsulation dot1Q 200 ip address 10.10.128.1 255.255.224.0 ! ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 126.96.36.199 250
Fe1/0 goes to a Cisco 2955. That device is where all the Vlan 2 devices are connected (172.X). The Vlan 2 devices are Wireless access points. Vlan 2 is the outside interface, the inside network of these Wifi AP's is Vlan 200 (10.10.X). All the clients have IPs like10.10.128.8, and 10.10.129.56, and so on.
I would like to ip nat the 10.10.128.X to a public address right on the 7301. The only available public IP address I have is the188.8.131.52 which is assigned to Gi0/0. Is it possible to NAT out using the ip address assigned to this interface. The examples I see online always have a special pool.
My initial thoughts were to simply apply "ip nat inside" to the Fe1/0.200, then apply "ip nat outside" to the Gi0/0. But I'm not sure what to use for my "ip nat" command in global config - especially since I am unsure if the one IP address is enough?