Fw: OT, but since you asked: English was: Re: What is this caled? (Opposite of ACD?) [Telecom]

Aug 06, 2008 Last reply: 17 years ago 2 Replies
Fw: OT, but since you asked: English    was: Re: What is this   caled? (Opposite of ACD?) [Telecom] open original PDF


MC, they should pay you extra for today: yours is the most clear,


> concise, and memorable advice I've ever received on this subject.

Glad to be of service! There's plenty more at:


formatting link
All the best, MC

"Henry" > The difference between "its" and "it's" is the same as the difference



> between "his" and "he's".
>>
>> "He's puzzling." -> "It's puzzling."
>>
>> "his strange attributes" -> "its strange attributes"
>>
>> (Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an >> apostrophe.)
>
> Oops. In your example above, 'his strange attributes', "his" is of
> course a possessive _adjective_, not a possessive pronoun.
>
> 'the red BMW is _his_ car' -> adjective, _describing_ 'car' >
> 'the blue Audi is _his_' -> pronoun, _replacing_ '(Bill's) car' >
> This can be confusing because in the third person singular (masculine)
> the same form, "his", is used in both instances. With the feminine at
> least there is the difference between 'her' (adjective) and 'hers'
> (pronoun) and with first person singular the distinction is perfectly > clear:
>
> 'my' -> 'mine'.

A pronoun does not lose its status as a pronoun because it is used in its attributive or possessive form. It does not "become" an adjective, it remains a pronoun used in its attiributive sense, which has the same functions as an adjective.


Let's not even get started with its / it's :-) -- what a can of
> worms that is! Just the other day I actually saw someone use its' (can
> you imagine?!?).

I never found the distinction be "its" and "it's" a cam of worms, or even difficult. If you can substitute "it is" for it, it is a contraction and takes tne apostrophe. If substituting "it is" turns the meaning into gibberish, use "its."


Oh, and by the way ... going back to
>
>> (Unlike nouns, possessive pronouns, such as "his," don't have an >> apostrophe.)
>
> we get your point. But consider this conversation heard daily down the > pub:
>
> Mike: 'Oh, hallo lads! What'll ye have?'
>
> Bill: 'I'll have a Guinness, please'.
>
> Henry: 'Thanks, mate! Mine's a lager'.
>
> 'Mine' is most definitely a possessive pronoun and that is indubitably
> an apostrophe crept in, there. So, appearances can be deceiving! >
> cheers,
>
>Henry

Quite clearly, "mine's", in your example, is a contraction of "mine is."


Wes Leatherock snipped-for-privacy@yahoo.com snipped-for-privacy@aol.com


***** Moderator's Note *****

This isn't telecom related, but I'm giving this thread some leeway because I have to correct a lot of posts which are very hard to understand in their original form. I'd really like to see better grammar from some contributors!



Bill Horne Temporary Moderator



Please put [Telecom] at the end of your subject line, or I may never see your post! Thanks!



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This is a dispute over terminology, not facts.

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