Anyway, a couple of months after signing up with AT&T, we received a
> significant bill for "incoming calls" that we never received, as we
> still don't know how to use the Nokia except to call out ... It took
> over four months, and a lawyer, to get AT&T to admit that the phone
> number we had been assigned was earlier used by a lobbyist.
I'm afraid I don't understand this, could someone explain it? On my cell phone, I'm only charged for incoming calls when I answer the phone. If it the phone is turned off, obviously I can't answer it and I am not charged. But even if the phone is turned on, if I don't answer it I still am not charged.
I know this because from time to time I test my cell phone (I don't use it very often) and I call it during prime time. It rings but I don't answer and I'm not charged.
Is there some new policy that even unanswering incoming calls are now charged?
[public replies please] [TELECOM Digest Editor's Note: I do not think there is any such policy. It was more likely a clerical error by AT&T (even though the company in its bureaucratic stubborness refused to correct it or look into the problem until they were forced to do so.) I am not charged on my no-answers inbound either (Cingular Wireless). PAT]