Sorry for the newbie question, but I want to double check something, before getting busted by my network guys: I have a need for a small 2950 (-12) in my office, which I VLAN-ed as follows:
- management VLAN called , with a gw of 192.168.1.1, and 5 ports associated with a DHCP server and 4 systems, all in the
192.168.1.0/24 network. The switch - itself - has the IP from this pool, of course (this is what "management VLAN" means, right?)- VLAN1 left alone, for the rest of the ports, of which one would be plugged into the "real" network, on a 172.30.0.0/16 net, and one other into another device of mine
I need to plug this switch into the existing network (4000s and 6500s), which was setup by my network group (as far as I understand it) with one
6500 as VTP server, and the rest clients.My purpose is to avoid any problems when plugging in my little 2950, so I have setup VTP in client mode, and have done nothing else to it (except for the VLAN above) - would it be safe to plug it, in one of the VLAN1 ports? Would there be a better way to configure this?
To give you the whole picture - I have, in fact, a little Linux-based firewall, and I am using the 2950 - half to host my systems "behind" the firewall (on the so-called management VLAN), and two ports to plug the connection to the rest of the network, and the second to plug the external interface of my firewall (I hope it is clear now why I wanted the management VLAN to be on the "other" network). My FW is also the DHCP serve for the systems on the "mgmt" VLAN ...
Sorry for the lenghty message - any comments?!? Does it matter that my VTP domain will not match the rest of the network (besides some errors in the logs, I assume?!?)? Would the port plugged into the rest of the network be regarded as "trunk", even if I did not define it as such?
TIA, C