Hi, the most information on L2TP i find (especially rfc's) mention the following situation : A client dials up to a ISP and then after ppp autentification (username/pw) and authorisation (yes, you have payed my bill! to connect the internet) the LAC ( L2TP Access Concentrator) initiates the L2TP tunnel to the desired endpoint (the remote lan i want to connect).
--somewhat clear ! but i come to the conclusion that i have to ask my ISP wheather his Dial-In device supports that L2TP capabilities anyhow ... Am I principically right ? (you must not mention some world wide adopted standards here)
user --------- LAC ========== NAS (remote) ppp L2TP
On a cisco site i found out, that some "able" routers do support L2TP on the users site (before invocing the ISP's LAC), so that the L2TP tunnel starts at the users router (passing the ISP's LAC nothing doing).
user (router) ====== (LAC?)======== NAS (remote) -------- dial-in L2TP over ppp L2TP over IP Cloud
which seems likely to be the same as a vpn connection from a (windows) client , where u set up a normal (ppp) dial-in connection, and upon on that , you run your L2TP (which i assume runs above ppp until the ISPs device and is the unpacked to IP and releaased nto the internet cloud)
can anyone point me to some information for the second mode , or both or a "good" point to read ? thanx jk