Op Amp model
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Posted by on November 26, 2005, 3:59 pm
Please log in for more thread options Hi, I want to model an Op Amp using a laplace transform. How can I do this if there is a single pole and unity gain frequency of 2.31Mhz? What would be the H(s) equation? Any help is greatly appreciated, Michael | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Posted by Jim Thompson on November 26, 2005, 5:38 pm
Please log in for more thread options On 26 Nov 2005 15:59:16 -0800, michael.mcgarry@gmail.com wrote: What grade will I get from the instructor ?:-) ...Jim Thompson -- | James E.Thompson, P.E. | mens | | Analog Innovations, Inc. | et | | Analog/Mixed-Signal ASIC's and Discrete Systems | manus | | Phoenix, Arizona Voice:(480)460-2350 | | | E-mail Address at Website Fax:(480)460-2142 | Brass Rat | | http://www.analog-innovations.com | 1962 | I love to cook with wine. Sometimes I even put it in the food. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Posted by Fred Bartoli on November 27, 2005, 10:57 am
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> On 26 Nov 2005 15:59:16 -0800, michael.mcgarry@gmail.com wrote:
> > >Hi,
> > > >I want to model an Op Amp using a laplace transform. How can I do this > >if there is a single pole and unity gain frequency of 2.31Mhz? > > > >What would be the H(s) equation? > > > >Any help is greatly appreciated, > > > >Michael >
> What grade will I get from the instructor ?:-) > Plain zero :-) Your model will have additional lag and won't reach the instructor's desk in time. -- Thanks, Fred. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Posted by Jim Thompson on November 27, 2005, 8:56 am
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On 26 Nov 2005 15:59:16 -0800, michael.mcgarry@gmail.com wrote: >Hi,
> >I want to model an Op Amp using a laplace transform. How can I do this >if there is a single pole and unity gain frequency of 2.31Mhz? > >What would be the H(s) equation? > >Any help is greatly appreciated, > >Michael GDC = DC Gain GBW = Gain-Bandwidth in radians/sec H(s) = (GDC*GBW)/(GDC*s + GBW) or H(s) = GBW/(s + GBW/GDC) ...Jim Thompson -- | James E.Thompson, P.E. | mens | | Analog Innovations, Inc. | et | | Analog/Mixed-Signal ASIC's and Discrete Systems | manus | | Phoenix, Arizona Voice:(480)460-2350 | | | E-mail Address at Website Fax:(480)460-2142 | Brass Rat | | http://www.analog-innovations.com | 1962 | I love to cook with wine. Sometimes I even put it in the food. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Posted by Winfield Hill on November 27, 2005, 8:26 am
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Jim Thompson wrote... >
> GDC = DC Gain > GBW = Gain-Bandwidth in radians/sec > > H(s) = GBW/(s + GBW/GDC) I prefer re-arraigning, H(s) = 1 / (s/GBW + 1/GDC) ~= 1 / s/GBW = GBW/s In this it's clear we can usually ignore 1/GDC ~= 0, yielding H(s) = BGW/s - which is useful because it highlights an important opamp parameter. -- Thanks, - Win | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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>
>I want to model an Op Amp using a laplace transform. How can I do this
>if there is a single pole and unity gain frequency of 2.31Mhz?
>
>What would be the H(s) equation?
>
>Any help is greatly appreciated,
>
>Michael