VLAN Questions

I'm in the process of creating VLAN 2 on a 2950 to give guest computers on ports 9-12 Internet access but so they can't get to any other corporate resources. These computers will get their IP address from DHCP running on the "outside" 3745. I've already configured the

3745 with subinterfaces and the 2950 F0/1 as a trunk.

By default, VLAN 1 is the native VLAN now. If all the 2950 ports belong to either VLAN 1 or VLAN 2, will there be any "native" traffic? Does it matter which VLAN is made the native one?

The 2950 is to be assigned an IP address that is part of the VLAN2 subnet. Since both VLANs are directly connected to the outside 3745, does it matter whether I apply this address to VLAN 1 or VLAN 2? If so, why?

Whichever VLAN I assign the IP address to, does the other VLAN need one?

Reply to
Bob Simon
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