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Posted by Bob Simon on February 8, 2007, 9:40 pm
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computers on ports 9-12 Internet access but so they can't get to any other corporate resources. These computers will get their IP address from DHCP running on the "outside" 3745. I've already configured the 3745 with subinterfaces and the 2950 F0/1 as a trunk. By default, VLAN 1 is the native VLAN now. If all the 2950 ports belong to either VLAN 1 or VLAN 2, will there be any "native" traffic? Does it matter which VLAN is made the native one? The 2950 is to be assigned an IP address that is part of the VLAN2 subnet. Since both VLANs are directly connected to the outside 3745, does it matter whether I apply this address to VLAN 1 or VLAN 2? If so, why? | |||||||||||||
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Posted by flamer die.spam@hotmail.com on February 8, 2007, 10:51 pm
Please log in for more thread options the native vlan is a vlan that doesnt have the vlan identifier tag added to the packets when trunked between switches, also when an untagged packet arrives on the switch it is assumed to be in the native vlan.. unless you have a lot of traffic and a lot of trunking then this has no real effect. I would just stick the ip address on the physical f0/1 int. Flamer. | |||||||||||||
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> computers on ports 9-12 Internet access but so they can't get to any
> other corporate resources. These computers will get their IP address
> from DHCP running on the "outside" 3745. I've already configured the
> 3745 with subinterfaces and the 2950 F0/1 as a trunk.
>
> By default, VLAN 1 is the native VLAN now. If all the 2950 ports
> belong to either VLAN 1 or VLAN 2, will there be any "native"
> traffic? Does it matter which VLAN is made the native one?
>
> The 2950 is to be assigned an IP address that is part of the VLAN2
> subnet. Since both VLANs are directly connected to the outside 3745,
> does it matter whether I apply this address to VLAN 1 or VLAN 2? If
> so, why?